5 thoughts on “Why Polygamy Is Not Unbiblical Part 5”

1. @Gerry

   One other possibility is that they had daughters that went unmentioned, a statistical liklihood. The only reason that Diana got mentioned is because of the Simeon and Levi incident.

2. If polygamy is allowed, does this mean men allowed to have sex with multiple wives at the same time (e.g. as in a threesome with two wives and one husband) or is the marriage bed for strictly one man and one wife at a time?

   Or is this forbidden as in the case of homosexuality?

3. Jeff,

   Your Question:

   “If polygamy is allowed, does this mean men allowed to have sex with multiple wives at the same time (e.g. as in a threesome with two wives and one husband) or is the marriage bed for strictly one man and one wife at a time?”

   While I do not myself practice polygamy(for a variety of reasons) I do from to time correspond with Christian men who exercise this Biblical right. A few weeks ago I was corresponding with a Christian polygamist in Africa. He said he sleeps with both his wives(he has two) in the same bed and he has the rule that they all sleep naked. He may turn to have sex with one or the other or both sometimes.

   Other polygamists I have corresponded with have a strict “one woman at at time” policy. In fact some Christian polygamists actually have separate houses for their wives and the children from those wives. So the question then is what does the Scriptures say about this?

   The answer is no where in the Scriptures do we find that a man is forbidden from having sex with two of his wives at the same time. We do find prohibitions on a man marrying a mother and her daughter or even the granddaughters of a woman(Leviticus 18:17). We also find prohibitions on a man marrying his wife’s sister centuries after Jacob married Leah and Rachel who were sisters(Leviticus 18:18).

   But aside from these restrictions on polygamy there is no restriction stating a man cannot have sex with two of his wives at the same time. Many women today would protest this – but this is because our culture has encouraged women to possessively jealous over their husbands which is something the Bible does not allow or encourage.

   See this article for more jealousy in women:
   https://biblicalgenderroles.com/2016/10/03/how-to-train-your-wife-not-to-be-jealous/

4. In the case of a threesome, isn’t it risky as the women could engage in homosexual behaviour? In fact the man could encourage it if that arouses him. (I read that men in general are aroused by lesbian porn)

   Or is Romans 1:26 talking about bestiality by women? (and not lesbianism)

5. Subin,
   Why did God create woman?

   The Bible says “Neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man” – I Corinthians 11:9.

   If we look back to the Garden of Eden this is confirmed in that we see God created Eve specifically for Adam, he was not created for her. So when it comes to sexuality, marriage and gender roles in general this must a driving consideration of any discussion of these topics. Now with that said let’s look at Romans chapter 1:

   “26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature: 27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.”
   Romans 1:26-27 (KJV)

   An important phrase in both vs 26 and vs 27 is “natural use”. Men left the natural use of the woman and women changed “the natural use” speaking of their own bodies against nature. Feminists and even many Christians will not like the following statement but it is utterly Biblically based on the entire witness of the Scriptures and specifically this passage from Romans 1 dealing with sexuality:

   God designed women to be sexually used by men within the confines of marriage.

   That is the truth. Does that smack feminist and egalitarian ideals right in the face? You bet it does. Now I am I saying that God ONLY designed women for men’s sexual pleasure in marriage? Of course not. The Bible gives us many other reasons for which he made woman for man as a companion, as mother for his children and manager of the domestic affairs of his home. But just because this was not the sole purpose for which God designed woman does not mean it was not one of the purposes for which God designed woman.

   So when a woman seeks sex with another woman for her own pleasure or when she engages in sexual relations with a beast both of these sexual activities are changing the natural use for which she was made.

   She was made to bring sexual pleasure to a man (within the confines of marriage). Some will argue “But God says men are to give their wives sex too so it is not just for men”. I don’t disagree that in passages like Exodus 21:10-11 and I Corinthians 7:2-5 that men are commanded to give themselves sexually to their wives. However we must answer the following questions. Why do women derive pleasure from sex in the first place? Why do women desire sex? The answer is for man. Every part of a woman’s nature was designed for man’s benefit. Women were designed to enjoy sex and desire sex because this makes sex more enjoyable for man.

   So in conclusion – if two wives are having sex with their husband and their focus is on his pleasure then there is no sin in whatever they do with him. If however they burn with affection toward one another and seek sexual relations with one another apart from him they have changed their natural use to that which is against nature. This is the essence of why lesbianism is wrong because it makes a woman’s desire for sexual pleasure completely devoid of its intended purpose which was to be for the enjoyment of man.

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